Shared Assessments CTPRP Daily Practice Exam New 2024 Updated 125 Questions
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NEW QUESTION # 53
Which statement is NOT an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics?
- A. To develop and provide periodic reporting to management based on TPRM results
- B. To document the agreed upon corrective action plan between external parties based on the severity of findings
- C. To communicate the status of findings identified in vendor assessments and escalate issues es needed
- D. To communicate the status of policy compliance with TPRM onboarding, periodic assessment and off-boarding requirements
Answer: B
Explanation:
The purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics is to inform and align the organization's stakeholders on the status, progress, and outcomes of the TPRM program.
This includes communicating the results of vendor assessments, the compliance level of the organization's policies and procedures, and the periodic reporting to management and other relevant parties. However, documenting the corrective action plan between external parties is not an internal communication, but rather an external one. This is because the corrective action plan is a formal agreement between the organization and the vendor to address and resolve the issues identified in the assessment. Therefore, this statement is not an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics. References:
* 15 KPIs & Metrics to Measure the Success of Your TPRM Program
* Third-party risk management metrics: Best practices to enhance your program
* 3 Best Third-Party Risk Management Software Solutions (2024)
NEW QUESTION # 54
Physical access procedures and activity logs should require all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Include a process to trigger review of the logs after security events
- B. Require multiple access controls for server rooms and data centers
- C. Require physical access logs to be retained indefinitely for audit purposes
- D. Record successful and unsuccessful attempts including investigation of unsuccessful access attempts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Physical access procedures and activity logs are important components of third-party risk management, as they help to ensure the security and integrity of the physical assets and data of the organization and its third parties.
However, requiring physical access logs to be retained indefinitely for audit purposes is not a best practice, as it may pose legal, regulatory, and operational challenges. According to the Supplemental Examination Procedures for Risk Management of Third-Party Relationships, physical access logs should be retained for a reasonable period of time, consistent with the organization's policies and procedures, and in compliance with applicable laws and regulations1. Retaining physical access logs indefinitely may increase the risk of unauthorized access, data breaches, privacy violations, and litigation2. Therefore, the statement B is the correct answer, as it is the only one that does not reflect a best practice for physical access procedures and activity logs.
References:
* 1: How to Write Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM) Policies and Procedures - SecurityScorecard Blog
* 2: Five Best Practices to Manage and Control Third-Party Risk - Broadcom Inc.
* 3: A checklist for third-party risk management platforms - Crowe LLP
* 4: Supplemental Examination Procedures for Risk Management of Third-Party Relationships
* 5: Third Party Risk Management: Why It's Important And What Features To Look For - Expert Insights
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following BEST reflects the risk of a 'shadow IT" function?
- A. "Shadow IT" functions often fail to detect unauthorized use of information assets
- B. "Shadow IT" functions often lack governance and security oversight
- C. Failure to implement strong security controls because IT is executed remotely
- D. inability to prevent "shadow IT' functions from using unauthorized software solutions
Answer: B
Explanation:
Shadow IT refers to the use of IT systems, services, or devices that are not authorized, approved, or supported by the official IT department. Shadow IT can pose significant risks to an organization's data security, compliance, performance, and reputation. One of the main risks of shadow IT is that it often lacks governance and security oversight. This means that the shadow IT functions may not follow the established policies, standards, and best practices for IT management, such as data protection, access control, encryption, backup, patching, auditing, and reporting. This can expose the organization to various threats, such as data breaches, cyberattacks, malware infections, legal liabilities, regulatory fines, and reputational damage. Additionally, shadow IT can create operational inefficiencies, compatibility issues, duplication of efforts, and increased costs for the organization.
According to the web search results from the search_web tool, shadow IT is a common and growing phenomenon in many organizations, especially with the proliferation of cloud-based services and applications. Some of the articles suggest the following best practices for managing and mitigating shadow IT risks123:
* Performing SaaS assessments to proactively detect shadow IT
* Prioritizing user experience (UX) and providing support for integrating tools
* Streamlining user account and identity management
* Using operating systems and devices with which employees are comfortable
* Compromising and collaborating with users to minimize shadow IT risks
* Educating and training users on the security risks and consequences of shadow IT
* Establishing clear policies and guidelines for IT procurement and usage
* Creating a culture of trust and transparency between IT and business units Therefore, the verified answer to the question is B. "Shadow IT" functions often lack governance and security oversight.
References:
* Shadow IT Explained: Risks & Opportunities - BMC Software
* Start reducing your organization's Shadow IT risk in 3 steps
* What is shadow IT? - Article | SailPoint
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a virtual assessment:
- A. Virtual assessments should be used to validate or confirm understanding of key controls, and not be used simply to review questionnaire responses
- B. Virtual assessment planning should identify what documentation is available for review prior to and during the assessment
- C. Virtual assessment agendas and planning should identify who should be available for interviews
- D. Virtual assessments include using interviews with subject matter experts since controls evaluation and testing cannot be performed virtually
Answer: D
Explanation:
Virtual assessments are a method of conducting third party risk assessments remotely, using various tools and techniques to collect and verify information about the third party's controls, processes, and performance.
Virtual assessments can be used to evaluate various risk domains, such as information security, privacy, resiliency, and compliance, depending on the scope and objectives of the assessment. Virtual assessments can also be used to complement or supplement onsite assessments, especially when travel or access restrictions are in place.
One of the key components of virtual assessments is the use of interviews with subject matter experts (SMEs) from the third party, who can provide insights and clarifications on the third party's policies, procedures, practices, and evidence. Interviews can also be used to validate or confirm the understanding of key controls, and not just to review questionnaire responses. However, interviews are not the only way to perform controls evaluation and testing in virtual assessments. Other methods include:
* Requesting and reviewing documentation and artifacts from the third party, such as policies, standards, certifications, attestations, test results, audit reports, or incident logs, that demonstrate the implementation and effectiveness of the controls.
* Performing live or recorded demonstrations of the controls, such as showing how the third party monitors, detects, and responds to security incidents, or how the third party encrypts, backs up, and restores data.
* Using remote access tools or platforms, such as screen sharing, video conferencing, or web portals, to observe and verify the controls in action, such as checking the configuration settings, access rights, or patch levels of the third party's systems or applications.
* Using independent or external sources of information, such as ratings, benchmarks, or feedback, to validate and compare the third party's performance, compliance, or reputation.
Therefore, the statement that virtual assessments include using interviews with SMEs since controls evaluation and testing cannot be performed virtually is false, as there are other ways to perform controls evaluation and testing in virtual assessments, besides interviews.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments, a leading provider of third party risk management solutions, offers a comprehensive guide for Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) candidates, which covers the core concepts and best practices of third party risk management, including virtual assessments.
* 2: Schneider Downs, a professional services firm, provides a blog post on the best practices for conducting third party risk management virtual assessments, which includes the methods and steps for performing controls evaluation and testing remotely.
* 3: Shared Assessments, a leading provider of third party risk management solutions, offers a blog post on the value and challenges of virtual assessments, which includes the benefits and drawbacks of using interviews and other techniques for controls evaluation and testing.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which statement is FALSE regarding the risk factors an organization may include when defining TPRM compliance requirements?
- A. Organizations define TPRM policies based on the company's risk appetite to shape requirements based on the services being outsourced
- B. Organizations incorporate the use of external standards and frameworks to align and map TPRM compliance requirements to industry practice
- C. Organizations include TPRM compliance requirements within vendor contracts, and periodically review and update mandatory contract provisions
- D. Organizations rely on regulatory mandates to define and structure TPRM compliance requirements
Answer: D
Explanation:
TPRM compliance requirements are the rules and expectations that an organization must follow when engaging with third parties, such as vendors, suppliers, partners, or contractors. These requirements are derived from various sources, such as laws, regulations, standards, frameworks, contracts, policies, and best practices. However, relying solely on regulatory mandates to define and structure TPRM compliance requirements is a false statement, because123:
* Regulatory mandates are not the only source of TPRM compliance requirements. Organizations may also need to consider other factors, such as industry benchmarks, customer expectations, stakeholder interests, ethical principles, and social responsibility.
* Regulatory mandates are not always comprehensive, clear, or consistent. Organizations may face different or conflicting regulations across jurisdictions, sectors, or domains. Organizations may also need to interpret and apply the regulations to their specific context and risk profile, which may require additional guidance or expertise.
* Regulatory mandates are not always sufficient, effective, or efficient. Organizations may need to go beyond the minimum requirements of the regulations to achieve their business objectives, mitigate their risks, or enhance their performance. Organizations may also need to adopt more flexible, scalable, and innovative approaches to TPRM compliance, rather than following a rigid, one-size-fits-all, or check-the-box model.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. Organizations rely on regulatory mandates to define and structure TPRM compliance requirements, as this is a false statement regarding the risk factors an organization may include when defining TPRM compliance requirements. References:
* 1: Understanding TPRM Compliance: A Comprehensive Guide | Prevalent
* 2: What Is Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM)? 2024 Guide | UpGuard
* 3: Third-Party Risk Management and ISO Requirements for 2022 | Reciprocity
NEW QUESTION # 58
Upon completion of a third party assessment, a meeting should be scheduled with which of the following resources prior to sharing findings with the vendor/service provider to approve remediation plans:
- A. CISO/CIO
- B. Business Unit Relationship Owner
- C. internal Audit
- D. C&O
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, the business unit relationship owner is the primary point of contact for the third party and is responsible for ensuring that the third party meets the contractual obligations and service level agreements. The business unit relationship owner is also involved in the third party risk assessment process and the remediation plan approval. Therefore, a meeting should be scheduled with the business unit relationship owner before sharing the findings and remediation plans with the third party, as they have the authority and accountability to approve or reject the plans. The other options are not necessarily involved in the remediation plan approval, although they may have other roles in the third party risk management lifecycle. References:
* Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, page 9, section 1.3.2
* The Third-Party Vendor Risk Management Lifecycle, section on Supplier Onboarding & Risk Monitoring
* Remediation vs. Mitigation, section on Remediation
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which statement is FALSE when describing the third party risk assessors' role when conducting a controls evaluation using an industry framework?
- A. The Assessor's role is to conduct discovery and validate responses from the risk assessment questionnaire by testing or validating controls
- B. The Assessor's role is to review compliance artifacts and identify potential control gaps based on evaluation of the presence of control attributes
- C. The Assessor's role is to provide an opinion on the effectiveness of controls conducted over a period of time in their report
- D. The Assessor's role is to conduct discovery with subject matter experts to understand the control environment
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, the third party risk assessor's role is to evaluate the design and operating effectiveness of the third party's controls based on an industry framework, such as ISO, NIST, COBIT, or COSO1. The assessor's role is not to provide an opinion on the effectiveness of controls, but rather to report the results of the evaluation in a factual and objective manner2. The assessor's role is also to conduct discovery with subject matter experts to understand the control environment, to conduct discovery and validate responses from the risk assessment questionnaire by testing or validating controls, and to review compliance artifacts and identify potential control gaps based on evaluation of the presence of control attributes1. These are all true statements that describe the assessor's role when conducting a controls evaluation using an industry framework.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, page 29
* 2: What is a Third-Party Risk Assessment? - RiskOptics
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following statements is FALSE about Data Loss Prevention Programs?
- A. DLP programs define the consequences for non-compliance to policies
- B. DLP programs define the required policies based on default tool configuration
- C. DLP programs include acknowledgement the company can apply controls to remove any data
- D. DLP programs include the policy, tool configuration requirements, and processes for the identification, blocking or monitoring of data
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) programs are not based on default tool configuration, but on the specific needs and risks of the organization. DLP programs should be tailored to the data types, locations, flows, and users that are relevant to the business. DLP programs should also align with the regulatory and contractual obligations, as well as the data risk appetite, of the organization. Default tool configuration may not adequately address these factors and may result in either over-blocking or under-protecting data. Therefore, statement C is false about DLP programs. References:
* 1: The Best Data Loss Prevention Software Tools - Comparitech
* 2: Build a Successful Data Loss Prevention Program in 5 Steps - Gartner
* 3: What is data loss prevention (DLP)? | Microsoft Security
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which example of analyzing a vendor's response should trigger further investigation of their information security policies?
- A. Determination that the security policies include contract or temporary workers
- B. Determination that the security policies are communicated to constituents including full and part-time employees
- C. Determination that the security policies do not specify any requirements for third party governance and oversight
- D. Determination that the security policies are approved by management and available to constituents including employees and contract workers
Answer: C
Explanation:
One of the key elements of a robust information security policy is the definition and implementation of requirements for third party governance and oversight. This means that the vendor should have clear and consistent processes and procedures for managing and monitoring the information security risks and controls of their subcontractors, suppliers, or service providers. Third party governance and oversight should include the following aspects12:
* Establishing criteria and standards for selecting and evaluating third parties based on their information security capabilities and performance
* Conducting regular and comprehensive assessments and audits of third parties' information security policies, practices, and incidents
* Ensuring contractual agreements and service level agreements (SLAs) with third parties include information security clauses and obligations
* Maintaining visibility and communication with third parties regarding their information security status and issues
* Implementing corrective actions and remediation plans for any identified information security gaps or weaknesses
* Terminating or suspending the relationship with third parties that fail to meet the information security expectations or requirements If a vendor's response does not specify any requirements for third party governance and oversight, it should trigger further investigation of their information security policies.
This indicates that the vendor may not have a comprehensive and effective approach to managing the information security risks and impacts of their extended network of partners. This could expose the vendor and their clients to potential data breaches, cyberattacks, compliance violations, or reputational
* damages. Therefore, the vendor should be asked to provide more details and evidence of how they ensure the information security of their third parties, and how they address any information security incidents or issues involving their third parties. References:
* 1: Third-Party Information Security Risk Management Policy - SecurityStudio
* 2: Ensuring Data Protection for Third Parties: Best Practices | UpGuard Blog
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following is NOT an attribute in the vendor inventory used to assign risk rating and vendor classification?
- A. Type of contract addendum
- B. Type of systems accessed
- C. Type of data accessed, processed, or retained
- D. Type of network connectivity
Answer: A
Explanation:
Vendor inventory is a list of all the third-party vendors that an organization engages with, along with relevant information about their products, services, contracts, and risks. Vendor inventory is a crucial tool for vendor risk management, as it helps an organization identify, assess, monitor, and mitigate the potential risks associated with its vendors. Vendor inventory also helps an organization prioritize its vendor oversight activities, allocate its resources efficiently, and comply with its regulatory obligations12.
One of the key steps in creating and maintaining a vendor inventory is to assign a risk rating and a vendor classification to each vendor, based on various attributes that reflect the level of risk and criticality they pose to the organization. The risk rating and vendor classification help an organization determine the frequency and depth of its vendor due diligence, review, and audit processes, as well as the appropriate controls and remediation actions to implement3 .
Some of the common attributes used to assign risk rating and vendor classification are :
* Type of data accessed, processed, or retained: This attribute indicates the sensitivity and confidentiality of the data that the vendor handles on behalf of the organization, such as personally identifiable information (PII), protected health information (PHI), financial information, intellectual property, etc. The more sensitive and confidential the data, the higher the risk rating and vendor classification, as the vendor must comply with strict security and privacy standards and regulations, and the organization must protect itself from data breaches, leaks, or losses.
* Type of systems accessed: This attribute indicates the access level and privileges that the vendor has to the organization's systems, such as networks, servers, databases, applications, etc. The more access and privileges the vendor has, the higher the risk rating and vendor classification, as the vendor must adhere to the organization's policies and procedures, and the organization must safeguard itself from unauthorized or malicious activities, such as cyberattacks, sabotage, or espionage.
* Type of network connectivity: This attribute indicates the mode and frequency of the data transmission and communication between the vendor and the organization, such as online, offline, real-time, batch, etc. The more network connectivity the vendor has, the higher the risk rating and vendor classification, as the vendor must ensure the availability, integrity, and reliability of the data, and the organization must prevent data interception, modification, or disruption.
The type of contract addendum is NOT an attribute used to assign risk rating and vendor classification, as it is not directly related to the risk or criticality of the vendor. The type of contract addendum is a legal document that modifies or supplements the original contract between the vendor and the organization, such as adding or deleting terms, clauses, or provisions. The type of contract addendum may reflect the changes or updates in the vendor relationship, such as scope, duration, price, service level, etc., but it does not indicate the level of risk or impact that the vendor has on the organization. Therefore, the type of contract addendum is not a relevant factor for vendor risk assessment and management . References:
* 1: Vendor Inventory - Shared Assessments
* 2: Vendor Inventory Management: A Guide to Third-Party Risk Management
* 3: Vendor Risk Rating - Shared Assessments
* : [Vendor Risk Rating: How to Rate Your Vendors | Smartsheet]
* : [Vendor Classification - Shared Assessments]
* : [Vendor Tiering: How to Classify Your Vendors | Smartsheet]
* : Contract Addendum - Shared Assessments
* : What is a Contract Addendum? | Definition and Examples | Imperva
NEW QUESTION # 63
You are assessing your organization's Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (BR/BCP) requirements based on the shift to remote work. Which statement is LEAST reflective of current practices in business resiliency?
- A. Third party service providers should be included in the company's exercise and testing program based on the criticality of the outsourced business function
- B. The right to require participation in testing with third party service providers should be included in the contract
- C. Management should request and receive artifacts that Gemonstrate successful test results and any remediation action plans
- D. The contract is the only enforceable control to stipulate third party service provider obligations for DR/BCP since both programs were triggered by the pandemic
Answer: D
Explanation:
The contract is not the only enforceable control to stipulate third party service provider obligations for DR/BCP, nor are both programs necessarily triggered by the pandemic. According to the Shared Assessments Program, third party risk management (TPRM) is a continuous process that requires ongoing monitoring and assessment of third parties' performance, compliance, and resilience. Therefore, the contract should be complemented by other controls, such as due diligence, audits, reviews, and reporting, to ensure that third parties meet the organization's expectations and standards for DR/BCP. Moreover, DR/BCP are not only relevant for pandemic scenarios, but also for other types of disasters, such as natural disasters, cyberattacks, power outages, or human errors. Therefore, the contract should reflect the organization's risk appetite and tolerance for different types of disruptions and scenarios, and not be limited to pandemic-related events.
NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following is NOT a key component of TPRM requirements in the software development life cycle (SDLC)?
- A. Software security testing
- B. Maintenance of artifacts that provide proof that SOLC gates are executed
- C. Process for fixing security defects
- D. Process for data destruction and disposal
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the context of Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM) requirements within the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), a process for data destruction and disposal is not typically considered a key component. The primary focus within SDLC in TPRM is on ensuring secure software development practices, which includes maintaining artifacts to prove that SDLC gates are executed, conducting software security testing, and having processes in place for fixing security defects. While data destruction and disposal are important security considerations, they are generally associated with data lifecycle management and information security management practices rather than being integral to the SDLC process itself.
References:
* Best practices in secure software development, as outlined in frameworks like the Secure Software Development Framework (SSDF) by NIST, emphasize the importance of secure coding, vulnerability
* testing, and remediation processes rather than data disposal practices.
* The "Software Security Framework (SSF)" by the Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) provides guidance on integrating security practices into the SDLC, focusing on areas like threat modeling, secure coding, and security testing.
NEW QUESTION # 65
When working with third parties, which of the following requirements does not reflect a "Zero Trust" approach to access management?
- A. Utilizing a solution that allows direct access by third parties to the organization's network
- B. Ensure that access is granted on a per session basis regardless of network location, user, or device
- C. Implement device monitoring, continual inspection and monitoring of logs/traffic
- D. Require that all communication is secured regardless of network location
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Zero Trust approach to access management is based on the principle of verifying every access request as if it originates from an open network, regardless of the source, destination, or context. This means that no implicit trust is granted based on network location, user identity, or device status. Instead, every access request is evaluated based on multiple factors, such as user credentials, device health, data sensitivity, and threat intelligence. A Zero Trust approach also requires that all communication is encrypted and protected, and that access is granted on a per session basis with the least privilege principle123.
Utilizing a solution that allows direct access by third parties to the organization's network does not reflect a Zero Trust approach, because it implies that the network perimeter is a reliable boundary for security and trust.
This assumption is risky, because it exposes the organization to potential breaches and attacks from compromised or malicious third parties, who may have access to sensitive data and resources without proper verification or protection. A Zero Trust approach would require that third parties use secure and isolated channels to access the organization's network, such as VPNs, proxies, or gateways, and that their access is monitored and controlled based on granular policies and conditions123. References:
* Zero Trust part 1: Identity and access management
* Zero Trust Model - Modern Security Architecture | Microsoft Security
* Zero Trust identity and access management development best practices ...
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which statement is TRUE regarding the use of questionnaires in third party risk assessments?
- A. Assessment questionnaires should be configured based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated
- B. Questionnaires are optional since reliance on contract terms is a sufficient control
- C. The total number of questions included in the questionnaire assigns the risk tier
- D. All topic areas included in the questionnaire require validation during the assessment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Questionnaires are one of the most common and effective tools for conducting third party risk assessments.
They help organizations gather information about the security and compliance practices of their vendors and service providers, as well as identify any gaps or weaknesses that may pose a risk to the organization.
However, not all questionnaires are created equal. Depending on the nature and scope of the third party relationship, different types and levels of questions may be required to adequately assess the risk. Therefore, it is important to configure the assessment questionnaires based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated12.
The risk rating of a third party is determined by various factors, such as the criticality of the service they provide, the sensitivity of the data they handle, the regulatory requirements they must comply with, and the potential impact of a breach or disruption on the organization. The higher the risk rating, the more detailed and comprehensive the questionnaire should be. For example, a high-risk third party that processes personal or financial data may require a questionnaire that covers multiple domains of security and privacy, such as data protection, encryption, access control, incident response, and audit. A low-risk third party that provides a non-critical service or does not handle sensitive data may require a questionnaire that covers only the basic security controls, such as firewall, antivirus, and password policy12.
The type of service that a third party provides also influences the configuration of the questionnaire. Different services may have different security and compliance standards and best practices that need to be addressed.
For example, a third party that provides cloud-based services may require a questionnaire that covers topics such as cloud security architecture, data residency, service level agreements, and disaster recovery. A third party that provides software development services may require a questionnaire that covers topics such as software development life cycle, code review, testing, and vulnerability management12.
By configuring the assessment questionnaires based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated, organizations can ensure that they ask the right questions to the right third parties, and obtain relevant and meaningful information to support their risk management decisions. Therefore, the statement that assessment questionnaires should be configured based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated is TRUE12. References: 1: How to Use SIG Questionnaires for Better Third-Party Risk Management 2:
Third-party risk assessment questionnaires - KPMG India
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which statement is NOT a method of securing web applications?
- A. Include validation checks in SDLC for cross site scripting and SOL injections
- B. Ensure appropriate logging and review of access and events
- C. Adhere to web content accessibility guidelines
- D. Conduct periodic penetration tests
Answer: C
Explanation:
Web content accessibility guidelines (WCAG) are a set of standards that aim to make web content more accessible to people with disabilities, such as visual, auditory, cognitive, or motor impairments. While WCAG is a good practice for web development and usability, it is not directly related to web application security.
WCAG does not address the common security risks that web applications face, such as injection, broken authentication, misconfiguration, or vulnerable components. Therefore, adhering to WCAG is not a method of securing web applications, unlike the other options. References:
* 4: OWASP Top 10, a standard awareness document for web application security, lists the most critical security risks to web applications and provides best practices to prevent or mitigate them.
* 5: SANS Institute, a leading provider of cybersecurity training and certification, offers a security checklist for web application technologies (SWAT) that covers best practices for error handling, data protection, configuration, authentication, session management, input and output handling, and access control.
* 6: Built In, a platform for tech professionals, provides 13 web application security best practices, such as using a web application firewall, keeping track of APIs, enforcing expected application behaviors, and following the OWASP Top 10.
NEW QUESTION # 68
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