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NEW QUESTION # 76
During the process of detecting and containing malicious emails, incident responders should examine the originating IP address of the emails.
The steps to examine the originating IP address are as follow:
1. Search for the IP in the WHOIS database
2. Open the email to trace and find its header
3. Collect the IP address of the sender from the header of the received mail
4. Look for the geographic address of the sender in the WHOIS database
Identify the correct sequence of steps to be performed by the incident responders to examine originating IP address of the emails.
- A. 2-->1-->4-->3
- B. 1-->3-->2-->4
- C. 2-->3-->1-->4
- D. 4-->1-->2-->3
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct sequence to examine the originating IP address of emails involves first accessing the email's header to locate the IP address, then using external resources to investigate that address further. The steps are as follows:
* Step 2:Open the email to trace and find its header. This is the initial step because the header contains valuable information about the email's journey across the internet, including the originating IP address.
* Step 3:Collect the IP address of the sender from the header of the received mail. This detail is crucial for the next steps in the investigation.
* Step 1:Search for the IP in the WHOIS database. This database can provide information about the owner of the IP address, including the ISP and sometimes the geographic location.
* Step 4:Look for the geographic address of the sender in the WHOIS database. With the IP address information obtained from the WHOIS search, the geographic location or the originating country of the email can often be deduced, contributing to the analysis of the email's legitimacy.
References:The process of analyzing email headers to trace originating IP addresses and further investigating those addresses is a common practice in incident response, covered under the digital forensics and email analysis topics within the CREST CPTIA curriculum by EC-Council.
NEW QUESTION # 77
Which of the following is a technique used by attackers to make a message difficult to understand through the use of ambiguous language?
- A. Steganography
- B. Obfuscation
- C. Spoofing
- D. Encryption
Answer: B
Explanation:
Obfuscation is a technique used to make data or code difficult to understand. It is often employed by attackers to conceal the true intent of their code or communications, making it harder for security professionals, automated tools, and others to analyze or detect malicious activity. Obfuscation can involve the use of ambiguous or misleading language, as well as more technical methods such as encoding, encryption, or the use of nonsensical variable names in source code to hide its true functionality.
References:The CREST CPTIA program discusses various techniques attackers use to evade detection, including obfuscation, highlighting how it complicates the analysis and understanding of malicious payloads.
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which of the following components refers to a node in the network that routes the traffic from a workstation to external command and control server and helps in identification of installed malware in the network?
- A. Gateway
- B. Network interface card (NIC)
- C. Repeater
- D. Hub
Answer: A
Explanation:
A gateway in a network functions as a node that routes traffic between different networks, such as from a local network to the internet. In the context of cyber threats, a gateway can be utilized to monitor and control the data flow to and from the network, helping in the identification and analysis of malware communications, including traffic to external command and control (C2) servers. This makes it an essential component in detecting installed malware within a network by observing anomalies or unauthorized communications at the network's boundary. Unlike repeaters, hubs, or network interface cards (NICs) that primarily facilitate network connectivity without analyzing the traffic, gateways can enforce security policies and detect suspicious activities.References:
* "Network Security Basics," Security+ Guide to Network Security Fundamentals
* "Malware Command and Control Channels: A Journey," SANS Institute InfoSec Reading Room
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following options describes common characteristics of phishing emails?
- A. Urgency, threatening, or promising subject lines
- B. Sent from friends or colleagues
- C. No BCC fields
- D. Written in French
Answer: A
Explanation:
Phishing emails often share common characteristics designed to manipulate the recipient into taking immediate action. One of the hallmark features is the use of urgency, threatening language, or promising subject lines in the emails. These tactics are intended to create a sense of urgency or fear, compelling the recipient to respond quickly without giving due consideration to the legitimacy of the email. Phishing emails may claim that the recipient's account has been compromised, that they need to confirm personal information immediately, or that they have won a prize. The goal is to trick the recipient into clicking on malicious links, opening attachments, or providing sensitive information.
References:The Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) program by EC-Council covers the identification and handling of phishing incidents, including the analysis of phishing emails and the importance of educating users on recognizing and responding to phishing attempts.
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which of the following is a standard framework that provides recommendations for implementing information security controls for organizations that initiate, implement, or maintain information security management systems (ISMSs)?
- A. ISO/IEC 27002
- B. ISO/IEC 27035
- C. RFC 219G
- D. PCI DSS
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27002 is a standard that provides best practice recommendations on information security controls for use by those responsible for initiating, implementing, or maintaining information security management systems (ISMSs). It covers areas such as risk assessment, human resource security, operational security, and communications security, among others, providing a framework for establishing, implementing, operating, monitoring, reviewing, maintaining, and improving an ISMS. ISO/IEC 27035 pertains to information security incident management, PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) deals with the security of cardholder data, and RFC 2196 is a guide for computer security incident response teams (CSIRTs), not a standard for implementing ISMSs.References:The CREST CPTIA curriculum includes the study of various standards and frameworks that support information security management and governance, including ISO/IEC
27002, highlighting its role in guiding organizations in implementing effective security controls.
NEW QUESTION # 81
A team of threat intelligence analysts is performing threat analysis on malware, and each of them has come up with their own theory and evidence to support their theory on a given malware.
Now, to identify the most consistent theory out of all the theories, which of the following analytic processes must threat intelligence manager use?
- A. Threat modelling
- B. Analysis of competing hypotheses (ACH)
- C. Automated technical analysis
- D. Application decomposition and analysis (ADA)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Analysis of Competing Hypotheses (ACH) is an analytic process designed to help an analyst or a team of analysts evaluate multiple competing hypotheses on an issue fairly and objectively. ACH assists in identifying and analyzing the evidence for and against each hypothesis, ultimately aiding in determining the most likely explanation. In the scenario where a team of threat intelligence analysts has various theories on a particular malware, ACH would be the most appropriate method to assess these competing theories systematically. ACH involves listing all possible hypotheses, collecting data and evidence, and assessing the evidence's consistency with each hypothesis. This process helps in minimizing cognitive biases and making a more informed decision on the most consistent theory.References:
* Richards J. Heuer Jr., "Psychology of Intelligence Analysis," Central Intelligence Agency
* "A Tradecraft Primer: Structured Analytic Techniques for Improving Intelligence Analysis," Central Intelligence Agency
NEW QUESTION # 82
Jason is an incident handler dealing with malware incidents. He was asked to perform memory dump analysis in order to collect the information about the basic functionality of any program. As a part of his assignment, he needs to perform string search analysis to search for the malicious string that could determine harmful actions that a program can perform. Which of the following string-searching tools Jason needs to use to do the intended task?
- A. BinText
- B. Process Explorer
- C. PEView
- D. Dependency Walker
Answer: A
Explanation:
BinText is a lightweight text extraction tool that can be used to perform string search analysis within binary files. This functionality is crucial for incident handlers like Jason, who are tasked with analyzing memory dumps for malicious activity or indicators of compromise. By searching for specific strings or patterns that are known to be associated with malware, BinText helps in identifying potentially harmful actions that a program could perform, thus aiding in the investigation of malware incidents.
References:Memory dump analysis and string search techniques are important skills covered in the CREST CPTIA curriculum, emphasizing the use of tools like BinText to aid in the forensic analysis of malware- infected systems.
NEW QUESTION # 83
An attacker instructs bots to use camouflage mechanism to hide his phishing and malware delivery locations in the rapidly changing network of compromised bots. In this particular technique, a single domain name consists of multiple IP addresses.
Which of the following technique is used by the attacker?
- A. Dynamic DNS
- B. DNS interrogation
- C. DNS zone transfer
- D. Fast-Flux DNS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Fast-Flux DNS is a technique used by attackers to hide phishing and malware distribution sites behind an ever- changing network of compromised hosts acting as proxies. It involves rapidly changing the association of domain names with multiple IP addresses, making the detection and shutdown of malicious sites more difficult. This technique contrasts with DNS zone transfers, which involve the replication of DNS data across DNS servers, or Dynamic DNS, which typically involves the automatic updating of DNS records for dynamic IP addresses, but not necessarily for malicious purposes. DNS interrogation involves querying DNS servers to retrieve information about domain names, but it does not involve hiding malicious content. Fast-Flux DNS specifically refers to the rapid changes in DNS records to obfuscate the source of the malicious activity, aligning with the scenario described.References:
* SANS Institute InfoSec Reading Room
* ICANN (Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers) Security and Stability Advisory Committee
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following is a term that describes the combination of strategies and services intended to restore data, applications, and other resources to the public cloud or dedicated service providers?
- A. Eradication
- B. Cloud recovery
- C. Mitigation
- D. Analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
The term that describes the combination of strategies and services intended to restore data, applications, and other resources to the public cloud or dedicated service providers is "Cloud recovery." This term encompasses disaster recovery efforts focused on ensuring that an organization's digital assets can be quickly and effectively restored or moved to cloud environments in the event of data loss, system failure, or a disaster.
Cloud recovery strategies are part of a broader disaster recovery and business continuity planning, ensuring minimal downtime anddata loss by leveraging cloud computing's scalability and flexibility. Mitigation, analysis, and eradication are terms associated with other aspects of incident response and risk management, not specifically with the restoration of resources to cloud environments.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) curriculum includes discussions on disaster recovery and business continuity planning, highlighting cloud recovery as a vital component of ensuring organizational resilience against disruptions.
NEW QUESTION # 85
Stanley works as an incident responder at a top MNC based out of Singapore. He was asked to investigate a cybersecurity incident that recently occurred in the company.
While investigating the crime, he collected the evidence from the victim systems. He must present this evidence in a clear and comprehensible manner to the members of jury so that the evidence explains the facts clearly and further helps in obtaining an expert opinion on the same to confirm the investigation process.
In the above scenario, what is the characteristic of the digital evidence Stanley tried to preserve?
- A. Believable
- B. Complete
- C. Authentic
- D. Admissible
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the scenario described, Stanley aims to ensure that the digital evidence he collected is admissible in court.
This means the evidence must be gathered, handled, and presented in a manner that complies with legal standards, ensuring it can be legally used in a trial. Admissibility is a crucial characteristic of digital evidence, as it must be relevant, authentic, and obtained without violating any laws or rights to privacy. The evidence must also be presented in a clear and comprehensible manner to be understood by the members of the jury, which further supports its admissibility in court.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials cover the legal aspects of handling digital evidence, including the principles ensuring evidence is admissible in court.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Alice is a disgruntled employee. She decided to acquire critical information from her organization for financial benefit. To acccomplish this, Alice started running a virtual machine on the same physical host as her victim's virtual machine and took advantage of shared physical resources (processor cache) to steal data (cryptographic key/plain text secrets) from the victim machine. Identify the type of attack Alice is performing in the above scenario.
- A. Service hijacking
- B. Man-in-the-cloud attack
- C. SQL injection attack
- D. Side channel attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
A side channel attack, as described in the scenario, involves an attacker using indirect methods to gather information from a system. In this case, Alice is exploiting the shared physical resources, specifically the processor cache, of a virtual machine host to steal data from another virtual machine on the same host. This type of attack does not directly breach the system through conventional means like breaking encryption but instead takes advantage of the information leaked by the physical implementation of the system, such as timing information, power consumption, electromagnetic leaks, or, as in this case, shared resource utilization, to infer the secret data.
References:The EC-Council's Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) program covers various types of cyber attacks, including advanced techniques like side channel attacks, highlighting the need for comprehensive security strategies that consider both direct and indirect attack vectors.
NEW QUESTION # 87
John is a professional hacker who is performing an attack on the target organization where he tries to redirect the connection between the IP address and its target server such that when the users type in the Internet address, it redirects them to a rogue website that resembles the original website. He tries this attack using cache poisoning technique. Identify the type of attack John is performing on the target organization.
- A. Pretexting
- B. Pharming
- C. Skimming
- D. War driving
Answer: B
Explanation:
Pharming is a cyber attack intended to redirect a website's traffic to another, bogus website. By poisoning a DNS server's cache, attackers can redirect users from the site they intended to visit to one that is malicious, without the user's knowledge or any action on their part, such as clicking a deceptive link. This technique is particularly insidious because it can affect well-intentioned users who type the correct URL into their browsers but are still redirected. War driving involves searching for wireless networks from a moving vehicle, skimming refers to stealing credit card information using a device placed on ATMs or point-of-sale terminals, and pretexting is a form of social engineering where the attacker lies to obtain privileged data.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification program covers a variety of cyber attacks and techniques, including DNS poisoning and pharming, explaining how attackers exploit vulnerabilities to redirect users to fraudulent sites.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Robert is an incident handler working for Xsecurity Inc. One day, his organization faced a massive cyberattack and all the websites related to the organization went offline. Robert was on duty during the incident and he was responsible to handle the incident and maintain business continuity. He immediately restored the web application service with the help of the existing backups.
According to the scenario, which of the following stages of incident handling and response (IH&R) process does Robert performed?
- A. Eradication
- B. Evidence gathering and forensics analysis
- C. Notification
- D. Recovery
Answer: D
Explanation:
Restoring web application services with the help of existing backups, as performed by Robert, falls under the Recovery stage of the Incident Handling and Response (IH&R) process. The Recovery stage involves actions taken to return the organization to normal operations after an incident, which includes restoring systems to their operational state using backups, patching vulnerabilities, and ensuring that all systems are clean and secure before being brought back online. This step is crucial for resuming business operations and mitigating the impact of the incident.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Sam works as an analyst in an organization named InfoTech Security. He was asked to collect information from various threat intelligence sources. In meeting the deadline, he forgot to verify the threat intelligence sources and used data from an open-source data provider, who offered it at a very low cost. Through it was beneficial at the initial stage but relying on such data providers can produce unreliable data and noise putting the organization network into risk.
What mistake Sam did that led to this situation?
- A. Sam used unreliable intelligence sources.
- B. Sam did not use the proper standardization formats for representing threat data.
- C. Sam did not use the proper technology to use or consume the information.
- D. Sam used data without context.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Sam's mistake was using threat intelligence from sources that he did not verify for reliability. Relying on intelligence from unverified or unreliable sources can lead to the incorporation of inaccurate, outdated, or irrelevant information into the organization's threat intelligence program. This can result in "noise," which refers to irrelevant or false information that can distract from real threats, and potentially put the organization's network at risk. Verifying the credibility and reliability of intelligence sources is crucial to ensure that the data used for making security decisions is accurate and actionable.References:
* "Best Practices for Threat Intelligence Sharing," by FIRST (Forum of Incident Response and Security Teams)
* "Evaluating Cyber Threat Intelligence Sources," by Jon DiMaggio, SANS Institute InfoSec Reading Room
NEW QUESTION # 90
Darwin is an attacker residing within the organization and is performing network sniffing by running his system in promiscuous mode. He is capturing and viewing all the network packets transmitted within the organization. Edwin is an incident handler in the same organization.
In the above situation, which of the following Nmap commands Edwin must use to detect Darwin's system that is running in promiscuous mode?
- A. nmap --script hostmap
- B. nmap -sU -p 500
- C. nmap -sV -T4 -O -F -version-light
- D. nmap --script=sniffer-detect [Target IP Address/Range of IP addresses]
Answer: D
Explanation:
The GPG18 and Forensic readiness planning (SPF) principles outline various guidelines to enhance an organization's readiness for forensic investigation and response. Principle 5, which suggests that organizations should adopt a scenario-based Forensic ReadinessPlanning approach that learns from experience gained within the business, emphasizes the importance of being prepared for a wide range of potential incidents by leveraging lessons learned from past experiences. This approach helps in continuously improving forensic readiness and response capabilities by adapting to the evolving threat landscape and organizational changes.
References:While specific documentation from GPG18 and SPF might detail these principles, the CREST CPTIA program by EC-Council covers the concept of forensic readiness planning, including adopting scenario-based approaches and learning from past incidents as a fundamental aspect of enhancing an organization's incident response and forensic capabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Francis is an incident handler and security expert. He works at MorisonTech Solutions based in Sydney, Australia. He was assigned a task to detect phishing/spam mails for the client organization.
Which of the following tools can assist Francis to perform the required task?
- A. Cain and Abel
- B. Netcraft
- C. Nessus
- D. BTCrack
Answer: B
Explanation:
Netcraft is a tool that provides internet security services, including the detection of phishing and spam emails.
It offers a range of services that can help organizations identify fraudulent websites and phishing activities by analyzing web content and email messages for known phishing signatures and heuristics. This makes it a useful tool for incident handlers like Francis, who is tasked with detecting phishing and spam emails for client organizations. Other options listed, such as Nessus (a vulnerability scanner), BTCrack (a Bluetooth pin and link-key cracker), and Cain and Abel (a password recovery tool), do not specialize in detecting phishing or spam emails but serve different purposes in cybersecurity.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) curriculum includes discussions on tools and methodologies for detecting and mitigating various cyber threats, including phishing and spam, highlighting tools like Netcraft for their utility in these areas.
NEW QUESTION # 92
In which of the following forms of bulk data collection are large amounts of data first collected from multiple sources in multiple formats and then processed to achieve threat intelligence?
- A. Hybrid form
- B. Structured form
- C. Unstructured form
- D. Production form
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the context of bulk data collection for threat intelligence, data is often initially collected in an unstructured form from multiple sources and in various formats. This unstructured data includes information from blogs, news articles, threat reports, social media, and other sources that do not follow a specific structure or format.
The subsequent processing of this data involves organizing, structuring, and analyzing it to extract actionable threat intelligence. This phase is crucial for turning vast amounts of disparate data into coherent, useful insights for cybersecurity purposes.References:
* "The Role of Unstructured Data in Cyber Threat Intelligence," by Jason Trost, Anomali
* "Turning Unstructured Data into Cyber Threat Intelligence," by Giorgio Mosca, IEEE Xplore
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which of the following risk mitigation strategies involves execution of controls to reduce the risk factor and brings it to an acceptable level or accepts the potential risk and continues operating the IT system?
- A. Risk transference
- B. Risk planning
- C. Risk avoidance
- D. Risk assumption
Answer: D
Explanation:
Risk assumption involves accepting the potential risk and continuing to operate the IT system while implementing controls to reduce the risk to an acceptable level. This strategy acknowledges that some level of risk is inevitable and focuses on managing it through mitigation measures rather than eliminating it entirely.
Risk avoidance would entail taking actions to avoid the risk entirely, risk planning involves preparing for potential risks, and risk transference shifts the risk to another party, typically through insurance or outsourcing. Risk assumption is a pragmatic approach that balances the need for operational continuity with the imperative of risk management.References:The CREST program covers various risk mitigation strategies, emphasizing the selection of the appropriate approach based on the organization's risk tolerance and the specific context of the threat.
NEW QUESTION # 94
Michael is a part of the computer incident response team of a company. One of his responsibilities is to handle email incidents. The company receives an email from an unknown source, and one of the steps that he needs to take is to check the validity of the email. Which of the following tools should he use?
- A. G Suite Toolbox
- B. Email Dossier
- C. Zendio
- D. Yesware
Answer: B
Explanation:
Email Dossier is a tool designed to assist in the investigation of email incidents by analyzing and validating email headers and providing detailed information about the origin, routing, and authenticity of an email.
When Michael is tasked with handling an email incident and needs to check the validity of an email received from an unknown source, Email Dossier can be utilized to trace the email's path, assess its credibility, and identify potential red flags associated with phishing or other malicious email-based attacks.
References:The CREST CPTIA curriculum emphasizes the importance of tools and techniques for email incident handling, including the use of Email Dossier for investigating suspicious emails and aiding in the response to email-based threats.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Moses, a threat intelligence analyst at InfoTec Inc., wants to find crucial information about the potential threats the organization is facing by using advanced Google searchoperators. He wants to identify whether any fake websites are hosted at the similar to the organization's URL.
Which of the following Google search queries should Moses use?
- A. info: www.infothech.org
- B. related: www.infothech.org
- C. link: www.infothech.org
- D. cache: www.infothech.org
Answer: B
Explanation:
The "related:" Google search operator is used to find websites that are similar or related to a specified URL.
In the context provided, Moses wants to identify fake websites that may be posing as or are similar to his organization's official site. By using the "related:" operator followed by his organization's URL, Google will return a list of websites that Google considers to be similar to the specified site. This can help Moses identify potential impersonating websites that could be used for phishing or other malicious activities. The "info:",
"link:", and "cache:" operators serve different purposes; "info:" provides information about the specified webpage, "link:" used to be used to find pages linking to a specific URL (but is now deprecated), and "cache:" shows the cached version of the specified webpage.References:
* Google Search Operators Guide by Moz
* Google Advanced Search Help Documentation
NEW QUESTION # 96
Investigator Ian gives you a drive image to investigate. What type of analysis are you performing?
- A. Live
- B. Dynamic
- C. Real-time
- D. Static
Answer: D
Explanation:
When Investigator Ian gives you a drive image to investigate, the type of analysis you are performing is static analysis. Static analysis involves examining the contents of a drive, file, or binary without executing the system or the application. It's about analyzing the data at rest. This type of analysis is crucial for forensics investigations because it allows for the examination of files, directories, and system information without altering any state or data, thereby preserving the integrity of the evidence. Static analysis is contrasted with dynamic analysis, which involves analyzing a system in operation (real-time or live) or executing the application to observe its behavior.References:Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides highlight the importance of static analysis in digital forensics, detailing methods for examining disk images, files, and other digital artifacts to gather evidence without compromising its integrity.
NEW QUESTION # 97
Cybersol Technologies initiated a cyber-threat intelligence program with a team of threat intelligence analysts. During the process, the analysts started converting the raw data into useful information by applying various techniques, such as machine-based techniques, and statistical methods.
In which of the following phases of the threat intelligence lifecycle is the threat intelligence team currently working?
- A. Processing and exploitation
- B. Dissemination and integration
- C. Planning and direction
- D. Analysis and production
Answer: A
Explanation:
The phase where threat intelligence analysts convert raw data into useful information by applying various techniques, such as machine learning or statistical methods, is known as 'Processing and Exploitation'. During this phase, collected data is processed, standardized, and analyzed to extract relevant information. This is a critical step in the threat intelligence lifecycle, transforming raw data into a format that can be further analyzed and turned into actionable intelligence in the subsequent 'Analysis and Production' phase.References:
* "Intelligence Analysis for Problem Solvers" by John E. McLaughlin
* "The Cyber Intelligence Tradecraft Project: The State of Cyber Intelligence Practices in the United States (Unclassified Summary)" by the Carnegie Mellon University's Software Engineering Institute
NEW QUESTION # 98
Tibson works as an incident responder for MNC based in Singapore. He is investigating a web application security incident recently faced by the company. The attack is performed on a MS SQL Server hosted by the company. In the detection and analysis phase, he used regular expressions to analyze and detect SQL meta-characters that led to SQL injection attack.
Identify the regular expression used by Tibson to detect SQL injection attack on MS SQL Server.
- A. ((\%3C)|<)((\%2F)|\/)*(script)((\%3E)|>)
- B. ((\.\.\\)|(\.\.\/))
- C. ((\.|%2E)(\.|%2E)(\/|%2F|\\|%5C))
- D. /exec(\s|\+)+(s|x)p\w+/ix
Answer: D
Explanation:
The regular expression/exec(\s|\+)+(s|x)p\w+/ixis designed to match patterns that resemble SQL injection attempts, specifically targeting MS SQL Server. This expression looks for the use of theexeccommand followed by one or more spaces or plus signs, and then patterns that start withsporxp, which are prefixes commonly used in SQL Server stored procedures and extended stored procedures. These are often targeted in SQL injection attacks to execute malicious SQL statements. The regular expression provided is a tool used by incident responders like Tibson to identify and analyze potential SQL injection attempts by looking for suspicious patterns in SQL queries.
NEW QUESTION # 99
If a hacker cannot find any other way to attack an organization, they can influence an employee or a disgruntled staff member. What type of threat is this?
- A. Identity theft
- B. Footprinting
- C. Insider attack
- D. Phishing attack
Answer: C
Explanation:
If a hacker influences an employee or a disgruntled staff member to gain access to an organization's resources or sensitive information, this is classified as an insider attack. Insider attacks are perpetrated by individuals within the organization, such as employees, contractors, or business associates, who have inside information concerning the organization's security practices, data, and computer systems. The threat from insiders can be intentional, as in the case of a disgruntled employee seeking to harm the organization, or unintentional, where an employee is manipulated or coerced by external parties without realizing the implications of their actions.
Phishing attacks, footprinting, and identity theft represent different types of cybersecurity threats where the attacker's method or objective differs from that of insider attacks.References:The CREST program addresses various types of threats, including insider threats, emphasizing the importance of recognizing and mitigating risks posed by individuals within the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 100
Alexis works as an incident responder at XYZ organization. She was asked to identify and attribute the actors behind an attack that occurred recently. For this purpose, she is performing a type of threat attribution that deals with the identification of a specific person, society, or country sponsoring a well-planned and executed intrusion or attack on its target. Which of the following types of threat attributions is Alexis performing?
- A. True attribution
- B. Intrusion set attribution
- C. Campaign attribution
- D. Nation-state attribution
Answer: D
Explanation:
Nation-state attribution involves identifying a specific country or government as the sponsor behind a cyber- attack or intrusion. This type of threat attribution is focused on determining the involvement of state actors in cyber operations against specific targets, which often involves sophisticated, well-planned, and executed cyber campaigns. Alexis's efforts to identify and attribute the actors behind the attack to a specific nation-state fall under this category, as she seeks to uncover the geopolitical motives and the extent of state sponsorship behind the incident. Nation-state attribution requires analyzing a variety of indicators, including technical evidence, tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs), and contextual intelligence. This is distinct from campaign attribution, which focuses on linking attacks to a specific campaign or operation, true attribution, which aims at identifying the actual individuals behind an attack, and intrusion set attribution, which involves attributing a set of malicious activities to a particular threat actor orgroup.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification program includes discussions on various types of threat attributions, highlighting the challenges and methodologies involved in attributing cyber-attacks to specific actors, including nation-states.
NEW QUESTION # 101
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