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IIBA IIBA-CCA Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 42
What is a risk owner?
- A. The person who is responsible for creating the risk
- B. The person who identified the risk
- C. The person accountable for resolving a risk
- D. The person who will take the action to mitigate a risk
Answer: C
Explanation:
A risk owner is the individual who is accountable for a specific risk being properly managed to an acceptable level. Accountability means the risk owner has the authority and obligation to ensure the risk is assessed, an appropriate treatment decision is made, and the organization follows through-whether that decision is to mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept the risk. In many governance models, the risk owner is typically a business or technology leader who "owns" the process, asset, or outcome most affected by the risk, and who can commit resources or approve changes needed to address it.
This is different from the person who performs the mitigation work. A risk owner may delegate tasks to control owners, engineers, or project teams, but they remain accountable for ensuring actions are completed, deadlines are met, residual risk is understood, and exceptions are documented and approved according to policy. The risk owner is also the person who should review changes in risk conditions over time, such as new vulnerabilities, changes in threat activity, or business/process changes that alter impact.
Option C describes an implementer or control owner, not necessarily the accountable party. Option D is simply the discoverer of the risk, and option B is incorrect because risks are often created by circumstances, design choices, or external factors rather than a single person.
NEW QUESTION # 43
How does Transport Layer Security ensure the reliability of a connection?
- A. By using public and private keys to verify the identities of the parties to the data transfer
- B. By ensuring communications use TCP/IP
- C. By conducting a message integrity check to prevent loss or alteration of the message
- D. By ensuring a stateful connection between client and server
Answer: C
Explanation:
Transport Layer Security (TLS) strengthens the trustworthiness of application communications by ensuring that data exchanged over an untrusted network is not silently modified and is coming from the expected endpoint. While TCP provides delivery features such as sequencing and retransmission, TLS contributes to what many cybersecurity documents describe as "reliable" secure communication by adding cryptographic integrity protections. TLS uses integrity checks (such as message authentication codes in older versions/cipher suites, or authenticated encryption modes like AES-GCM and ChaCha20-Poly1305 in modern TLS) so that any alteration of data in transit is detected. If an attacker intercepts traffic and tries to change commands, session data, or application content, the integrity verification fails and the connection is typically terminated, preventing corrupted or manipulated messages from being accepted as valid.
This is distinct from merely being "stateful" (a transport-layer property) or "using TCP/IP" (a networking stack choice). TLS can run over TCP and relies on TCP for delivery reliability, but TLS itself is focused on confidentiality, integrity, and endpoint authentication. Public/private keys and certificates are used during the TLS handshake to authenticate servers (and optionally clients) and to establish shared session keys, but the ongoing protection that prevents undetected tampering is the integrity check on each protected record. Therefore, the best match to how TLS ensures secure, dependable communication is the message integrity mechanism described in option B.
NEW QUESTION # 44
What risk to information integrity is a Business Analyst aiming to minimize, by defining processes and procedures that describe interrelations between data sets in a data warehouse implementation?
- A. Data Aggregation
- B. Unauthorized Access
- C. Confidentiality
- D. Cross-Site Scripting
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a data warehouse, information from multiple operational sources is consolidated, transformed, and related through keys, joins, and business rules. When a Business Analyst defines processes and procedures that describe how data sets interrelate, they are primarily controlling the risk created by data aggregation. Aggregation risk arises when combining multiple datasets produces a new, richer dataset that can change the meaning, sensitivity, or trustworthiness of the information. If relationships and transformation rules are poorly defined or inconsistently applied, the warehouse can generate misleading analytics, incorrect roll-ups, duplicated records, or invalid correlations-directly harming information integrity because decisions are made on inaccurate or improperly combined data.
Well-defined interrelation procedures specify authoritative sources, master data rules, key management, referential integrity expectations, transformation and reconciliation steps, and data lineage. These controls help ensure the warehouse preserves correctness when data is integrated across systems with different formats, definitions, and update cycles. They also support governance by enabling validation checks (for example, balancing totals to source systems, exception handling, and data-quality thresholds) and by making it clear which dataset should be trusted for specific attributes.
Unauthorized access and confidentiality are important warehouse risks, but they are addressed mainly through access controls and encryption. Cross-site scripting is a web application vulnerability and is not the core issue in describing dataset relationships. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Aggregation.
NEW QUESTION # 45
What things must be identified to define an attack vector?
- A. The source, processor, and content
- B. The system, transport protocol, and target
- C. The platform, application, and data
- D. The attacker and the vulnerability
Answer: D
Explanation:
An attack vector is the route or method used to compromise an environment, and it is typically described as the way a threat actor exploits a vulnerability to gain unauthorized access, execute code, steal data, or disrupt services. To define an attack vector correctly, cybersecurity documents emphasize that you must identify both parts of that relationship: who or what is attacking and what weakness is being exploited. The "attacker" component represents the threat source or threat actor, including their capability and intent (for example, cybercriminals using phishing, insiders abusing access, or automated botnets scanning the internet). The "vulnerability" component is the specific weakness or exposure that enables success, such as a missing patch, weak authentication, misconfiguration, excessive permissions, insecure coding flaw, or lack of user awareness.
Without identifying the attacker, you cannot properly characterize the likely techniques, scale, and motivation driving the vector. Without identifying the vulnerability, you cannot define the practical entry point and control gaps that make the vector feasible. Together, attacker plus vulnerability allows defenders to map realistic scenarios, prioritize controls, and select mitigations that reduce likelihood and impact. Those mitigations may include patching, configuration hardening, strong authentication, least privilege, network segmentation, user training, and monitoring. The other options list technology elements that can be involved in an incident, but they do not capture the essential definition of an attack vector as an exploitation path driven by a threat actor leveraging a weakness
NEW QUESTION # 46
What is a Recovery Point Objective RPO?
- A. The maximum time a system may be out of service before a significant business impact occurs
- B. The point in time prior to the outage to which business and process data must be recovered
- C. The target time to restore systems to operational status following an outage
- D. The target time to restore a system without experiencing any significant business impact
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Recovery Point Objective defines the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It answers the question: "After an outage or disruptive event, how far back in time can we restore data and still meet business needs?" If the RPO is 4 hours, the organization is stating it can tolerate losing up to 4 hours of data changes, meaning backups, replication, journaling, or snapshots must be frequent enough to restore to a point no older than 4 hours before the incident. That is exactly what option A describes: the specific point in time prior to the outage to which data must be recovered.
RPO is often paired with Recovery Time Objective but they are not the same. RTO focuses on how quickly service must be restored, while RPO focuses on how much data the organization can afford to lose. Options B, C, and D all describe time-to-restore concepts, which align with RTO or related recovery targets rather than RPO.
In operational resilience and disaster recovery planning, RPO drives technical design choices: backup frequency, replication methods, storage and retention strategies, and validation testing. Lower RPO values generally require more robust and often more expensive solutions, such as near-real-time replication and strong change capture controls. RPO also influences incident response and recovery procedures to ensure restoration steps reliably meet the agreed data-loss tolerance.
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NEW QUESTION # 47
The process by which organizations assess the data they hold and the level of protection it should be given based on its risk to loss or harm from disclosure, is known as:
- A. vulnerability assessment.
- B. information categorization.
- C. internal audit.
- D. information classification.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Information classification is the formal process of evaluating the data an organization creates or holds and assigning it a sensitivity level so the organization can apply the right safeguards. Cybersecurity policies describe classification as the foundation for consistent protection because it links the potential harm from unauthorized disclosure, alteration, or loss to specific handling and control requirements. Typical classification labels include Public, Internal, Confidential, and Restricted, though names vary by organization. Once data is classified, required protections can be specified, such as encryption at rest and in transit, access restrictions based on least privilege, approved storage locations, monitoring requirements, retention periods, and secure disposal methods.
This is not a vulnerability assessment, which focuses on identifying weaknesses in systems, applications, or configurations. It is also not an internal audit, which evaluates whether controls and processes are being followed and are effective. Option D, information categorization, is often used in some frameworks to describe assigning impact levels (for example, confidentiality, integrity, availability impact) to information types or systems, mainly to drive control baselines. While related, the question specifically emphasizes assessing data and deciding the level of protection based on risk from disclosure, which aligns most directly with classification programs used to govern labeling and handling rules across the organization.
A strong classification program improves security consistency, supports compliance, reduces accidental exposure, and helps prioritize controls for the most sensitive information assets.
NEW QUESTION # 48
The hash function supports data in transit by ensuring:
- A. a public key is transitioned into a private key.
- B. a message was modified in transit.
- C. validation that a message originated from a particular user.
- D. encrypted messages are not shared with another party.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A cryptographic hash function supports data in transit primarily by providing integrity assurance. When a sender computes a hash (digest) of a message and the receiver recomputes the hash after receipt, the two digests should match if the message arrived unchanged. If the message is altered in any way while traveling across the network-whether by an attacker, a faulty intermediary device, or transmission errors-the recomputed digest will differ from the original. This difference is the key signal that the message was modified in transit, which is what option B expresses. In practical secure-transport designs, hashes are typically combined with a secret key or digital signature so an attacker cannot simply modify the message and generate a new valid digest. Examples include HMAC for message authentication and digital signatures that hash the content and then sign the hash with a private key. These mechanisms provide integrity and, when keyed or signed, also provide authentication and non-repudiation properties.
Option A is more specifically about authentication of origin, which requires a keyed construction such as HMAC or a signature scheme; a plain hash alone cannot prove who sent the message. Option C is incorrect because keys are not "converted" from public to private. Option D relates to confidentiality, which is provided by encryption, not hashing. Therefore, the best answer is B because hashing enables detection of message modification during transit.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Information classification of data is a level of protection that is based on an organization's:
- A. retention for auditing purposes.
- B. timing of availability for automated systems.
- C. need for access by employees.
- D. risk to loss or harm from disclosure.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Information classification is the practice of assigning data a sensitivity level so the organization can apply protections that match the business impact if the information is exposed, altered, or becomes unavailable. The core driver for classification is the risk of harm-especially harm caused by unauthorized disclosure. If disclosure would result in regulatory penalties, reputational damage, competitive disadvantage, contractual breach, or harm to customers and employees, the data is classified at a higher level and requires stronger controls. These controls commonly include tighter access restrictions (least privilege and role-based access), stronger authentication, encryption at rest and in transit, stricter handling and sharing rules, audit logging, monitoring, and secure disposal requirements.
While retention can be influenced by compliance obligations, it is not what determines the classification level; retention policies typically reference classification but do not define it. "Need for access" is managed through access control decisions, which are applied after the data's sensitivity is understood; classification informs who should have access, not the other way around. "Timing of availability" relates to availability requirements and service resilience, which are important, but classification schemes primarily focus on sensitivity and potential damage from inappropriate exposure, with integrity and availability considerations often handled as additional impact dimensions.
Therefore, the best verified basis for information classification is the organization's assessment of risk of loss or harm from disclosure.
NEW QUESTION # 50
What is risk mitigation?
- A. Reducing the risk by implementing one or more countermeasures
- B. Eliminating the risk by stopping the activity which causes risk
- C. Documenting the risk in full and preparing a recovery plan
- D. Purchasing insurance against a cybersecurity breach
Answer: A
Explanation:
Risk mitigation is the risk treatment approach focused on reducing risk to an acceptable level by lowering either the likelihood of a risk event, the impact of that event, or both. In cybersecurity risk management, mitigation is accomplished by implementing controls and countermeasures such as technical safeguards, process changes, and administrative measures. Examples include patching vulnerable systems, hardening configurations, enabling multi-factor authentication, applying least privilege, network segmentation, encryption, improved logging and monitoring, secure development practices, and user awareness training. Each of these actions reduces exposure or limits damage if an incident occurs.
The other options describe different risk treatment strategies, not mitigation. Purchasing insurance is generally considered risk transfer, where financial impact is shifted to a third party, but the underlying threat and vulnerability may still exist. Eliminating risk by stopping the risky activity is risk avoidance; it removes the exposure by discontinuing the process, system, or behavior causing the risk. Documenting the risk and preparing a recovery plan aligns more closely with risk acceptance combined with contingency planning or resilience planning; it acknowledges the risk and focuses on recovery rather than reducing the probability of occurrence.
Therefore, the correct definition of risk mitigation is reducing the risk through implementing one or more countermeasures.
NEW QUESTION # 51
A significant benefit of role-based access is that it:
- A. simplifies the assignment of correct access levels to a user based on the work they will perform.
- B. ensures that tasks and associated privileges for a specific business process are disseminated among multiple users.
- C. makes it easier to audit and verify data access.
- D. ensures that employee accounts will be shut down on departure or role change.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Role-based access control assigns permissions to defined roles that reflect job functions, and users receive access by being placed into the appropriate role. The major operational and security benefit is that it simplifies and standardizes access provisioning. Instead of granting permissions individually to each user, administrators manage a smaller, controlled set of roles such as Accounts Payable Clerk, HR Specialist, or Application Administrator. When a new employee joins or changes responsibilities, access can be adjusted quickly and consistently by changing role membership. This reduces manual errors, limits over-provisioning, and helps enforce least privilege because each role is designed to include only the permissions required for that function.
RBAC also improves governance by making access decisions more repeatable and policy-driven. Security and compliance teams can review roles, validate that each role's permissions match business needs, and require approvals for changes to role definitions. This approach supports segregation of duties by separating conflicting capabilities into different roles, which lowers fraud and misuse risk.
Option B is a real advantage of RBAC, but it is typically a secondary outcome of having structured roles rather than the primary "significant benefit" emphasized in access-control design. Option C relates to identity lifecycle processes such as deprovisioning, which can be integrated with RBAC but is not guaranteed by RBAC alone. Option D describes distributing tasks among multiple users, which is more aligned with segregation of duties design, not the core benefit of RBAC.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Recovery Point Objectives and Recovery Time Objectives are based on what system attribute?
- A. Sensitivity
- B. Cost
- C. Vulnerability
- D. Criticality
Answer: D
Explanation:
Recovery Time Objective (RTO) and Recovery Point Objective (RPO) are continuity and resilience targets that define how quickly a system must be restored and how much data loss is acceptable after an interruption. These objectives are derived primarily from system criticality, meaning how essential the system is to business operations, safety, revenue, legal obligations, and customer commitments. Highly critical systems support mission-essential functions or time-sensitive services, so they require shorter RTOs (restore fast) and smaller RPOs (lose little or no data). Less critical systems can tolerate longer outages and larger data gaps, allowing longer RTOs and RPOs.
Cybersecurity and business continuity documents tie RTO/RPO determination to business impact analysis results. The BIA identifies maximum tolerable downtime, operational dependencies, and the consequences of service disruption and data unavailability. From there, organizations set RTO/RPO targets that align with risk appetite and required service levels. Those targets then drive technical and operational controls such as backup frequency, replication methods, high availability architecture, failover design, disaster recovery procedures, monitoring, and routine recovery testing.
Sensitivity focuses on confidentiality needs and may influence encryption and access controls, but it does not directly define acceptable downtime or data loss. Vulnerability describes weakness exposure and is used for threat/risk management, not recovery objectives. Cost is a constraint when selecting recovery solutions, but RTO/RPO are defined by business need and system importance first-then solutions are chosen to meet those targets within budget.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following would qualify as a multi-factor authentication pair?
- A. Something You Know and Something You Are
- B. Thumbprint and Encryption
- C. Encryption and Password
- D. Password and Token
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multi-factor authentication requires a user to prove identity using two or more different factor types. Cybersecurity standards describe the main factor categories as something you know (for example, a password or PIN), something you have (for example, a hardware token, smart card, or authenticator app producing a one-time code), and something you are (biometrics such as fingerprint, face, or iris). A valid MFA pair must come from different categories, not just two items from the same category or a mix of authentication with non-authentication concepts.
Option B is correct because it explicitly combines two distinct factor types: a knowledge factor and an inherence factor. This pairing is widely recognized as MFA because compromising one factor does not automatically compromise the other: an attacker who steals a password still needs the biometric, and spoofing a biometric does not provide the secret knowledge factor.
Option A is incorrect because "encryption" is not an authentication factor; it is a protection mechanism for confidentiality and integrity of data. Option D has the same problem: encryption is not a user factor. Option C can represent MFA in many real implementations if "token" is truly a possession factor; however, training materials and exam items often prefer the clearest, unambiguous factor-language pairing, which is why "Something You Know and Something You Are" is the best single answer here.
NEW QUESTION # 54
What privacy legislation governs the use of healthcare data in the United States?
- A. HIPAA
- B. PIPEDA
- C. Privacy Act
- D. PCI-DSS
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the United States, HIPAA, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, is the primary federal framework that governs how certain healthcare information must be protected and used. In cybersecurity and compliance documentation, HIPAA is most often discussed through its implementing rules, especially the Privacy Rule and the Security Rule. The Privacy Rule establishes when protected health information may be used or disclosed and grants individuals rights over their health information. The Security Rule focuses specifically on safeguarding electronic protected health information by requiring administrative, physical, and technical safeguards.
From a security controls perspective, HIPAA-driven programs typically include risk analysis and risk management, policies and workforce training, access controls based on least privilege, unique user identification, authentication controls, audit logging, integrity protections, transmission security such as encryption for data in transit, and contingency planning such as backups and disaster recovery. HIPAA also expects organizations to manage third-party risk through appropriate agreements and oversight when vendors handle protected health information.
The other options do not fit the question. The Privacy Act generally applies to U.S. federal agencies' handling of personal records, PIPEDA is a Canadian privacy law, and PCI-DSS is an industry security standard focused on payment card data rather than healthcare data. Therefore, HIPAA is the correct legislation for U.S. healthcare data protection requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 55
What should organizations do with Key Risk Indicator KRI and Key Performance Indicator KPI data to facilitate decision making, and improve performance and accountability?
- A. Prioritize, falsify, and report
- B. Challenge, compare, and revise
- C. Achieve, reset, and evaluate
- D. Collect, analyze, and report
Answer: D
Explanation:
KRIs and KPIs are only useful when they are handled as part of a disciplined measurement lifecycle. Cybersecurity governance guidance emphasizes three essential activities: collect, analyze, and report. Organizations must first collect KRI and KPI data consistently from reliable sources such as vulnerability scanners, SIEM logs, IAM systems, ticketing platforms, and asset inventories. Collection requires defined metric owners, clear definitions, standardized time windows, and data quality checks so results are comparable across periods and business units.
Next, organizations analyze the data to understand what it means for risk and performance. Analysis includes trending over time, comparing results to targets and thresholds, correlating indicators to business outcomes, identifying outliers, and determining root causes. For KRIs, analysis highlights rising exposure or control breakdowns such as increasing critical vulnerabilities beyond SLA. For KPIs, analysis evaluates operational effectiveness such as mean time to detect and mean time to remediate.
Finally, organizations report results to the right audiences with the right level of detail. Reporting supports accountability by assigning actions, tracking remediation progress, and escalating when thresholds are exceeded. It also supports decision making by showing where investment, staffing, or control changes will have the greatest risk-reduction and performance impact. The other options are not standard, auditable metric management activities and do not reflect the established lifecycle used in cybersecurity measurement programs.
NEW QUESTION # 56
An internet-based organization whose address is not known has attempted to acquire personal identification details such as usernames and passwords by creating a fake website. This is an example of?
- A. Breach
- B. Phishing
- C. Ransomware
- D. Threat
Answer: B
Explanation:
Creating a fake website to trick individuals into entering usernames and passwords is a classic example of phishing. Phishing is a social engineering technique where an attacker impersonates a trusted entity to deceive a victim into disclosing sensitive information (credentials, personal data, payment details) or taking an action that benefits the attacker (downloading malware, approving an MFA prompt, wiring funds). A counterfeit login page is commonly used in credential-harvesting campaigns: the victim believes they are authenticating to a legitimate service, but the credentials are captured by the attacker and later used for account takeover. This is not necessarily a breach yet because the question describes an attempt to acquire credentials; a breach would be confirmed unauthorized access or disclosure. While phishing is a kind of threat, "threat" is too broad compared to the specific described behavior. It is also not ransomware, which focuses on encrypting or locking data and demanding payment. Cybersecurity documentation emphasizes layered defenses against phishing: user awareness training, email and web filtering, domain and certificate validation, anti-spoofing controls, strong authentication (especially MFA resistant to prompt fatigue), password managers that reduce credential entry on lookalike domains, and monitoring for suspicious logins. Because the attack relies on deception through a fake website to steal credentials, the best match is phishing.
NEW QUESTION # 57
What business analysis deliverable would be an essential input when designing an audit log report?
- A. Future State Business Process
- B. Access Control Requirements
- C. Risk Log
- D. Internal Audit Report
Answer: B
Explanation:
Designing an audit log report requires clarity on who is allowed to do what, which actions are considered security-relevant, and what evidence must be captured to demonstrate accountability. Access Control Requirements are the essential business analysis deliverable because they define roles, permissions, segregation of duties, privileged functions, approval workflows, and the conditions under which access is granted or denied. From these requirements, the logging design can specify exactly which events must be recorded, such as authentication attempts, authorization decisions, privilege elevation, administrative changes, access to sensitive records, data exports, configuration changes, and failed access attempts. They also help determine how logs should attribute actions to unique identities, including service accounts and delegated administration, which is critical for auditability and non-repudiation.
Access control requirements also drive necessary log fields and report structure: user or role, timestamp, source, target object, action, outcome, and reason codes for denials or policy exceptions. Without these requirements, an audit log report can become either too sparse to support investigations and compliance, or too noisy to be operationally useful.
A risk log can influence priorities, but it does not define the authoritative set of access events and entitlements that must be auditable. A future state process can provide context, yet it is not as precise as access rules for determining what to log. An internal audit report may highlight gaps, but it is not the primary design input compared to formal access control requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 58
Certificates that provide SSL/TLS encryption capability:
- A. can be purchased from certificate authorities.
- B. can provide authorization of data access.
- C. are similar to the unencrypted data.
- D. are for data located on thumb drives.
Answer: A
Explanation:
SSL/TLS relies on digital certificates to support encrypted communications and to help users trust that they are connecting to the correct server. A TLS certificate is typically an X.509 certificate that binds a public key to an identity, such as a domain name, and is digitally signed by a trusted issuer. In most public internet use cases, these certificates are issued by Certificate Authorities that browsers and operating systems already trust through pre-installed root certificates. Because of that trust chain, organizations commonly obtain certificates by purchasing or otherwise obtaining them from certificate authorities, which is why option B is correct.
During the TLS handshake, the server presents its certificate to the client. The client validates the certificate's signature chain, validity period, and that the certificate matches the domain being accessed. Once validated, TLS establishes session keys used to encrypt data in transit and protect it from eavesdropping and tampering. Certificates themselves are not "similar to unencrypted data," and they are not specific to thumb-drive storage; they are used to secure network communications. Certificates also do not primarily provide "authorization" to access data. Authorization is typically enforced by application and access control mechanisms after authentication. Certificates support authentication of endpoints and enable secure key exchange, which are prerequisites for secure transport encryption and trustworthy connections.
NEW QUESTION # 59
ITIL Information Technology Infrastructure Library defines:
- A. a standard of best practices for IT Service Management.
- B. how technology and hardware systems interface securely with one another.
- C. the standard set of components used in every business technology system.
- D. a set of security requirements that every business technology system must meet.
Answer: A
Explanation:
ITIL is a widely adopted framework that defines best-practice guidance for IT Service Management. Its focus is on how organizations design, deliver, operate, and continually improve IT services so they reliably support business outcomes. In cybersecurity and service delivery documentation, ITIL is often referenced because strong service management processes are foundational to secure operations. For example, ITIL practices such as incident management, problem management, change enablement, configuration management, and service continuity help ensure security controls are implemented consistently and that deviations are identified, tracked, and corrected.
ITIL does not define how hardware systems interface securely with one another; that is more aligned with architecture standards, security engineering, and network or platform design frameworks. It also does not prescribe a universal set of components for every technology system; that belongs to reference architectures and enterprise architecture standards. Likewise, ITIL is not primarily a security requirements standard. While ITIL supports security governance through practices like risk management, access management, and information security management integration, it does not itself serve as a mandatory security control catalog.
From a cybersecurity perspective, ITIL contributes by promoting repeatable processes, clear roles and responsibilities, measurable service levels, and continual improvement. These elements reduce operational risk, improve response effectiveness, and strengthen accountability-key requirements for maintaining confidentiality, integrity, and availability in production environments.
NEW QUESTION # 60
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